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Inheritance In The Koran Vs Calculators


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#1 StopS

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Posted 26 June 2012 - 10:55 PM

The Koran normally remains very high level and provides signs at best, but when it comes to inheritance regulations it is quite explicit.

There are 2 paragraphs about this and then a third one at the end of chapter 4.

What we, the readers, are told is that there are some percentages or fractions, with some indication of inheritance hierarchies.

One example is that the Koran specifies the fraction for a single daughter and for more than 2 daughters, but not 2 daughters.

If I create an example and insert 3 daughters, these 3 should receive 2/3rds according to 4:11 saying "if they be women above two, then for them two-thirds of what he leaves"

Very clear and straight forward.

But if the family structure does not allow the fractions to add up to 1 in the real world, inheritance calculators everyone knows insert all sorts of numbers, but not 2/3rds. I think everyone knows the relevant examples.

Why is it that the Koran specifies something and the real world application of these rules are not met or followed?
Why are the real world applications contradicting what is stipulated in the Koran.
Are numbers stipulated in the Koran merely a recommendation?

#2 WeAreComming

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Posted 29 June 2012 - 12:37 AM

im only 15, i really don't know about inheritance, but these issues are nothing new, the ummah(community) has been dealing with all of these issues, if you are really curious go to the person of knowledge.
Secondly I remember reading a story of Ali(r.z) and his skills in math where he tackled a similar problem. but it was in urdu (pakistani language) but I'm sure there are more stories in english language.

I'm sorry for my answer not being any help.

#3 StopS

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Posted 29 June 2012 - 02:03 PM

im only 15, i really don't know about inheritance, but these issues are nothing new, the ummah(community) has been dealing with all of these issues, if you are really curious go to the person of knowledge.
Secondly I remember reading a story of Ali(r.z) and his skills in math where he tackled a similar problem. but it was in urdu (pakistani language) but I'm sure there are more stories in english language.

I'm sorry for my answer not being any help.


Thanks anyway.

Interesting that you say the issue is not new, but I can't find a consistent ruling on this. But please appreciate this is not a mathematical problem, but one of clear ruling.

#4 Mohammed Amine

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Posted 05 July 2012 - 12:54 AM

Peace:
1 : It is mentioned that in Quran also That 2 Females have the same as the Male.(General Statement)
2 : Since there is a verse that says for one female is the 1/2 , it is understood that the case of 2 apply as more than 2.
We know that if the deceased leave one male he gets 2/3. since 2 females take like on male then they will take 2/3.

it is reported in sahih that the prophet gave Two Daughter of a deceased person with no male heir 2/3.

Hope this helped

#5 StopS

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Posted 05 July 2012 - 07:20 PM

Peace:
1 : It is mentioned that in Quran also That 2 Females have the same as the Male.(General Statement)


Is this just a comment? Does it relate to my questions?
And what you should do is feed numbers into an Islamic calculator. NONE that I have tested ever grants a female an equal portion if there's a male present. So in theory you might be right, but in reality it is ignored.

2 : Since there is a verse that says for one female is the 1/2 , it is understood that the case of 2 apply as more than 2.


Why is this understood? By whom? Are these precise and accurate instructions?

We know that if the deceased leave one male he gets 2/3. since 2 females take like on male then they will take 2/3.

it is reported in sahih that the prophet gave Two Daughter of a deceased person with no male heir 2/3.

Hope this helped


"We know" is who exactly? Well, if you give your daughters 2/3 and your parents 1/6 each, what will cover the portion of the wife?