In the Quran & Hadith, the term People of the Book (أهل الكتاب ′Ahl al-Kitāb) is used to refer to followers of monotheistic faiths "which pre-date the advent of Islam." In particular, it refers to the Christian & Jewish faiths. The question is are People of the Book believers? If they are, then Islam is not necessary to avoid eternal torment in hell. Moreover, when the Quran refers to the People of the Book there it gives no indication the Book is corrupted. It is a good Book when referring to the People of the Book. Do you see where I am going with this?
Now, if the People of the Book are disbelievers, then I don't see the logic in the Quran; for instance, why did Allah allow for so many people (Billions of people) for so many yeas to be led astray by books they themselves did not corrupt? Moreover, being that Allah is an omniscient being who knows the hearts of men, why would he give people a test he knows they would fail? And what is worse, why would he send them to hell or eternal torment?
Please post the evidence to Biblical corruption again. Because this is what you need to convince me of. From what I can tell there are three possibilities:
- The original Judeo-Christian scriptures have been corrupted (as you claim).
- Muhammad imperfectly borrowed from the Judeo-Christian scriptures.
- The Qur'an has been corrupted
Just like you are not willing to believe the Quran is corrupted, I am not so willing to believe the Bible is corrupted as you would like me to believe. Post the proof again. Again that verse you quoted doesn't prove the Bible is corrupted. It is not even proof it is referring to the Bible. Show the proof please.
Please post your prove on the debate thread. I would move this there but I don't know how. Moderators please feel free to move it to the debate section Thank you
Some of the people of the Book are believers and some are disbelievers. For example, the originals followers of Moses, peace be upon him, are believers. Those who followed David, Elijah, Solomon, etc. peace be upon them all, are believers. For example, the Jews who rejected Jesus, peace be upon him, are disbelievers even if they accepted Moses and the rest of the Prophets, peace be upon them. The same applies to Christians. They rejection of the Prophet Muhammad, peace be upon him, makes them disbelievers, not to mention their belief in the Trinity and other beliefs.
The questions you ask are quite meaningless. Why did God allow Moses, peace be upon him, to stay for too long on the mountain? Why didn't He send Moses, peace be upon him, to prevent the event? Why did God allow the Torah to be buried until a priest under Josiah's time found it? Why did He allow the Israelites to worship idols in the Temple seeing that their forefathers did this and they were ignorant? The answer is God has given them free will. God does not interfere in every single situation. All humans were believers at one point at the time of Adam, peace be upon him. Why did God allow them to forge false religions? Because He has given people free will. The same applies to the corruption of the Bible. Why did God allow the lost books mentioned in the Bible to be lost?
O people of the Scripture (Jews and Christians)! Now has come to you Our Messenger (Muhammad ) making (things) clear unto you, after a break in (the series of) Messengers, lest you say: "There came unto us no bringer of glad tidings and no warner. " But now has come unto you a bringer of glad tidings and a warner. And Allah is Able to do all things. (5:19)
Worry about yourself rather than billions of people. Those whom the Message did not reach will have an excuse on the Day of Judgement whereas you won't. God will test them on the Day of Judgement for obedience when they tell Him that the Message did not reach them. This goes for the Jews and Christians who were ignorant. It goes for the people of other religions as well.
The verse refers to the Bible. It has been understood by Muslims to refer to the Bible since the Prophet's (pbuh) time. This is what Ibn Abbas, the cousin of the Prophet, who would be in Christian terms termed as a disciple, said:
Az-Zuhri said that `Ubadydullah bin `Abdullah narrated that Ibn `Abbas said, "O Muslims! How could you ask the People of the Book about anything, while the Book of Allah (Qur'an) that He revealed to His Prophet is the most recent Book from Him and you still read it fresh and young Allah told you that the People of the Book altered the Book of Allah, changed it and wrote another book with their own hands. They then said, `This book is from Allah,' so that they acquired a small profit by it. Hasn't the knowledge that came to you prohibited you from asking them By Allah! We have not seen any of them asking you about what was revealed to you.''
Here is on the tikkun soferim: http://www.gawaher.c...on-islam/page-2
Masoretic vs. Septuagint: http://www.gawaher.c...ures/?p=1238433