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Assalamu Alaikum and G'day, I wish to explore with you the subject of whether knowledge proves causation, as people often ask whether God can be Omniscient and allow free-will and my hunch is that at the crux of this matter is whether or not God's knowledge of your choice leaves you free to make it, in other words, does God's knowledge make the choice for you (/cause you to make the choice) or do you make the choice freely and God somehow knows what it will be? So it seems relevant to explore whether knowledge proves causation. If I know that a person is a cocaine addict, but I never supplied them the drug and always discouraged drug use, is my knowledge of their addiction either the initial cause of their addiction or something which forces them to continue in their addiction? Here is another way to think about it. You and I know that Hitler chose - presumably of his own free will if you are an atheist - to hate and attack Jews. Now does our certain knowledge of this prove that Hitler did not make that choice of his own free will at the time? In order to prove that God's fore-knowledge of a choice is the cause of it (and therefore that this knowledge precludes such choice being made without free-will), it would seem we would need to know the following; (a)The means by which God knows the future (b)That the means used causes a person to make the choice instead of allowing them to make it of their own free will. I don't know of either a believer or an atheist who knows the answer to (a), and this would seem to rule out the possiblity of determining (b). Your thoughts are much appreciated. Kind regards, Dan :)