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Found 1 result

  1. Assalamu Alaikum, Does the Return of His holiness Jesus (as He is seen by the Muslims in this forum) follow the purely social aspects of the shariah revealed via His holiness Muhammad? First of all let us examine some relevant Hadith. "The (command of) Jihad will not be abolished until the descent of Isa1 Ibn Maryam."2 Now let us examine some attributes of Jihad as understood by the members of this forum; In spite of this, when questioned what (in their eyes) Jesus would do to non-Muslims (excluding Christians) who respect Islam enough that they allow Muslims to follow their religion, but will not Join Islam, this answer was given; So it seems fair to say that when His holiness Jesus returns (according to this view), non-Muslims and non-Christians who do not accept Islam but permit Muslims to practise Islam will a) Be warred with by Jesus until they accept Islam (or otherwise die) b) Have war waged on them even if they are innocent of hostiliity to Islam And His holiness Jesus will; c) Initiate hostilites against the peaceful amongst non-Muslims(excluding Christians) d) Hand out collective punishment to non-Muslims who do not accept Islam (excluding Christians) e) Harm non-combatant non-Muslims who do not accept Islam (excluding Christians) Therefore it seems logical that His holiness Jesus will not follow Jihad according to the shariah revealed via His holiness Muhammad if what Jihad is and what Jesus (allegedly) will do are compared. By logical extension then, Jesus will not follow the purely social aspects of the shariah revealed by His holiness Muhammad. Interestingly, when Muslims interpret what abolishing Jihad or Jizya means, they say that since when His holiness Jesus comes, there will eventually be no non-Muslims, and thus practising Jihad or collecting Jizya would not be relevent. But this raises the question, if it is permissible to discontinue collection of Jizya because it is not relevant to the time, then surely non-relevance to the time becomes a valid justification for discontinuation of Jizya? If "non-relevance to the times" is valid justification, then why can't non-relevance be examined in the light of the difference between the lifetime of His holiness Muhammad (when religions were identified with states), and modern times in pluralistic societies? Kind regards :) 1 ie His holiness Jesus 2 Musnad Ahmad as quoted by Mufti Mohammad Shafi in ‘Signs of Qiyamah and the Arrival of the Maseeh’, p. 109
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